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Magnetic monopole…

February 12, 2008

Mohan, mdashf


When I think of  “time” as a physical variable I think it does not make a sense of finiteness (say) for example for a single charge. The charge, to know how it got to interact with the “interaction wave-function” must have a “sense” for time.  In the absence of another charge I think it finds that time doesn’t tick  or say the length of time is infinite.

You bring another charge in its vicinity how so ever close or farther (say at an infinite distance) and the time clock will start ticking. The charge that was there to start with will start sensing time.

Because now time makes finite sense for the charge. So the presence of two electric charge make “time” finite. It makes time tick like a clock.

Now it is possible that there lies the reason why a magnetic monopole may exist.

At the cost of possibly be (even) wrong as I don’t understand the equations of electricity and magnetism, for how symmetric they are wrt each other, the advance theory of unification notwithstanding, I will take the chance of proposing that these equations might shed more clarity on how two magnetic monopoles even if separated without any matter in between may still make time finite, that  would be the theoretical proof.

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